Establishment,
Rajbhasha, Accounts,
Railway GK
(200 MCQs with Answer)
Lets test yourself:
1. The formation of the Railway Board in 18 Feb 1905 was based upon the recommendations of:
(A) Sir Acworth Committee (B) Sir MacDonald Stephenson Committee
(C) Sir Thomas Robertson Committee (D) Separation Convention 1924
2. Under the Constitution of India, the legislative power with respect to Railways vests exclusively in
(A) Rajya Sabha (B) Lok Sabha
(C) Parliament (D) None of these
3. Who was the first Secretary of the Railway Board in 1905:
(A) Rowland Macdonald Stephenson (B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) G.W. McGeorge (D) N.G. Priestley
4. Who was the first Chief Commissioner of the Railway from 01.11.1922 to 11.10.1928:
(A) Rowland Macdonald Stephenson (B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) G.W. McGeorge (D) Sir Clement Hindley
5. Who was the first CRB in Railway Board in April 1951:
(A) FC Badhwar (B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) G.W. McGeorge (D) Sir Clement Hindley
6. After the restructuring of railway board as per Dopt letter dtd: 02.09.20 the work of stat and econ. will be looked after by: -
(A) Member operation and business development (B) Member finance
(C) Member (Infrastructure) (D) None of the above
7. In which year Finance commissioner is introduced to Railway Board as a Railway Board Member?
(A) 1923 (B) 1911 (c) 1905 (d) 1920
8. After restructuring of Railway Board as per Dopt letter dtd: 02.09.20 the Materials Management will be looked after by:
(A) Member operation and business development
(B) Member (Traction & Rolling Stock),
(C) Finance commissioner
(D) None of the above
9. After the restructuring of the Railway Board as per Dopt letter dtd: 02.09.20 the Station Development & Railway Electrification will be looked after by:
(A) Member (Infrastructure) (B) Member (Traction & Rolling Stock),
(C) Finance commissioner (D) None of the above
10. After the restructuring of Railway Board as per Dopt letter dtd: 02.09.20 the Electrical and Signal & Telecommunication Engg. Department
will be looked after by:
(A) Member (Infrastructure) (B) Member (Traction & Rolling Stock),
(C) Finance commissioner (D) None of the above
11. Railway Board Member--------is responsible for Mechanical Department.
(A) Member (Infrastructure) (B) Finance commissioner
(C) Member (Traction & Rolling Stock) (D) None of the above
12. Railway Board Member--------is responsible for the Commercial & Operating Department.
(A) Member (Operations & Business Development (B) Member (Infrastructure)
(C) Finance commissioner (D) None of the above
13. Railway Board Member/ Director-General --------is responsible for personnel & Training and administrative Department.
(A) Member (Infrastructure) (B) Director General (HR) (CRB)
(C) Finance commissioner (D) None of the above
14. Head of Traffic department at the Railway Board level, as on date, is known as:
(A) Member Operation (MO)
(B) Member Transportation (MT)
(C) Member Train Services (MTS)
(D) Member (Operation and Business Development)
15. The legislative power with respect to Railways vests exclusively in Parliament, with reference to which these powers are exercised
(A) Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961
(B) Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1962
(C) Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1963
(D) None of these
16. P.V. Sindhu is connected with which game.
a. Lawn Tennis
b. Table Tennis
c. Basket Ball
d. Badminton
17. Ranji Trophy is Connected with which game.
a. Hockey
b. Cricket
c. Valley Ball
d. Foot Ball
18. Gir Forest is famous for which animal.
a. Tiger
b. Lion
c. Jaguar
d. Elephant
19. How many zones are there in Indian Railway?
a. Nine
b. Fifteen
c. Seventeen
d. Eighteen
20. What is the name of National bird of India?
a. Sparrow
b. Peacock
c. Swan
d. Duck
21. Statue of Unity pertains to which leader.
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
d. Morar ji Desai
22. How many states are in India at present?
a. 26
b. 27
c. 28
d. 29
23. WHO stands for?
a. World Head Office
b. World Health Office
c. World Health Organisation
d. World Human Organisation
24. States of Union of India have been categorized in how many categories as per the Rajbhasha Policy
a)Two
b)Three
c)Four
d)Five
25. Section 3(3) of Official Language Policy 1963 pertain to which document.
a. Office Orders
b. Office Noting’s
c. Confidential Letters
d. D.O. Letters
26. What is frequency of review meeting of official Language implementation committee at Divisional Level
a.Monthly
b.Quarterly
c.Six monthly
d.Annually
27. Sanjay Gandhi National Park is situated in which state?
a. Gujarat
b. Maharashtra
c. Karnataka
d. Goa
28. What is the name of minister of Railway?
a. Suresh Prabhu
b. Nitin Gadkari
c. Piyush Goyal
d. Prakash Javadekar
29. GST stands for
a. Gross Sales Tax
b. Goods Supply Tax
c. Goods and Services Tax
d. General Services Tax
30. HRMS stands for
a. Human Resource Management System
b. Hind Railway Mazdoor Sabha
c. Hindustan Revolutionary Manpower System
d. Higher Resolution Mechanical System
31. UMID stand for
a. Unique Medical Identity Card
b. Unified Medical and Identity Device
c. User Manual Identification Device
d. None of the above
32. How many LHAP (Half Leave Average Pay) is admissible to an employee per annum.
a. 20 days
b. 30 days
c. 40 days
d. 50 days.
33. General Manager of a Zone is entitled for which kind of Metal Pass:
a. Bronze
b. Silver
c. Gold
d. None of the above
34. Maximum how many members of the family can be included in privilege pass, if dependent relatives are included in pass:
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
35. Maternity Leave is allowed for a female employee for maximum how many days.
a. 180 days
b. 240 days
c. 365 days
d. 730 days
36. Maximum how many times leave encashment can be availed by an employee during the service period.
A. Four times B. Six times
C. Eight times D. Ten times
37. Which kind of audit is performed by railway accounts department?
a. Internal Audit
b. External Audit
c. Both internal and External Audit
d. None of the above
38. After 7th Pay Amount of Composite Transfer Grant is permitted as-
a. One month basic salary
b. 80% of basic salary
c. 50% of the basic salary
d. None of the above
39. How many demands are there in the Budget prepared by Railway.
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16
40. Principal Head of the Accounts department over a Zonal Railway is known as:
a. FA & CAO
b. PFA
c. PFA & CAO
d. PCAO
41. Which following form is used for keeping an employee under suspension?
a. SF1
b. SF2
c. SF5
d. SF6
42. How many maximum LHAP can be accumulated in the leave account of an employee:
a. 240 days
b. 300 days
c. 360 days
d. No limit
43. Leave on Average pay shall be credited to the leave account of a railway servant at the rate of
(A) 2.5 days for each completed calendar month of service
(B) 2.0 days for each completed calendar month of service
(C) 3.0 days for each completed calendar month of service
(D) 1.5 days for each completed calendar month of service
44. Maximum number of days of commuted leave (on medical ground) which can be availed of during the entire service
(A) Unlimited
(A) 180 days
(B) 300 days
(C) 360 days
45. Cash Payment in lieu of unutilized LAP on the days of Superannuation is dealt with by which rule of IREC
(B) Rule no.550(a)
(C) Rule no.549(a)
(D) Rule no.550(b)
(E) None of these
46. Gazetted post is a post to which the appointment is made by
(A) Notification in the national newspaper
(B) Notification in the Gazette of India
(C) Notification by the UPSC
(D) None of these
47. Overseas Pay means pay granted to a Railway servant when he is serving
(A) In a country other than the country of his domicile
(B) In other railway zones of IR
(C) In other govt ministries (within India)
(D) None of these
48. Which is the highest grade in administrative hierarchy amongst the following
(A) HAG
(B) SAG
(C) SG
(D) JAG
49. What is the correct full form of RCT in Railway parlance?
(A) Railway Claim Tribunal
(B) Railway Commission Tribunal
(C) Railway Centre for Traffic
(D) Railway Courts Tribunal
50. What does E stand for in term LARGESS in railway?
(A) Entitlement
(B) Expenses
(C) Employment
(D) None of theseent Scheme for Guaranteed Employment for Safety Staff
51. Child care leave for a female employee given up to …. Days maximum.
(A) 660
(B) 560
(C) 700
(D) 730
52. Maternity leave is permissible for…… days.
(A) 180
(B) 90
(C) 5
(D) 100
53. Suspension is a ……. penalty
(A) Major
(B) Minor
(C) Smallest
(D) None of them
54. How many annexures are attached with major penalty charge memorandum?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 4
55. Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of deemed suspension?
(A) SF-1
(B) SF-3
(C) SF-2
(D) SF4
56. What would be the correct procedure when a faulty charge sheet requires modification/addition
(A) Cancelling the earlier C/sheet with reasons
(B) Without canceling a fresh C/sheet maybe issued
(C) Continue the proceedings
(D) None of these
57. Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly Servant and RS(D&A) Rule subsequently, he is expired his case should be
(A) Continue and finalized
(B) Send to Rly. Board
(C) Send to GM
(D) Close
58. Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties?
(A) Rule -9
(B) Rule -11
(C) Rule -6
(D) None of these
59. 50% of subsistence allowance grated under?
(A) Rule 1342 R-II
(B) Rule 1343 R-II
(C) Rule 1345 R-II
(D) None of these
60. A Railway servant shall be deemed to have placed under suspension if he has been put in police custody for a period?
(A) exceeding 24 hours
(B) exceeding 48 hours
(C) immediate effect
(D) None of these
61. Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under
(A) Rule 20 of pension rules, 1993
(B) Rule 64 of pension rules, 1993
(C) Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993
(D) None of these
62. Within which interval, Paternity Leave will be granted?
(A) Six Months
(B) Three Months
(C) Four Months
(D) 15 Days
63. How much service (minimum) is required for post retired complimentary pass
(A) 20 Years
(B) 25 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 33 years
64. Break Journey is not permissible in case of ____
(A) Privilege Pass
(B) School Pass
(C) Settlement pass
(D) Post Retd. Complimentary pass
65. Full Form of PTO_________
(A) Personnel Ticket Order
(B) Permanent Ticket Order
(C) Privilege Ticket Order
(D) Pass & Ticket Order
66. Attendants of pass holder is
(A) Part time servant
(B) Servant
(C) Full time paid servant
(D) any person
67. Maximum validity for a privilege pass
(A) 3 Months (Half set)
(B) 4 Months (Full set)
(C) 2 Months (Half set)
(D) 5 Months (Full set)
68. How many sets of School pass issued to Railway Employee?
(A) 6 sets per year
(B) 4 sets per year
(C) 3 sets per year
(D) 5 sets per year
69. Who is the competent Authority to grant study leave within India:
(A) Railway Board
(B) GM
(C) DRM/CWM
(D) CPO
70. Maximum encashment of leave on average pay is____
(A) 150 Days
(B) 300+15 Days
(C) 730 Days
(D) 300 Days
71. Where is the Indian Railway Institute of Electrical Engineering located?
(A) Lucknow
(B) Secunderabad
(C) Nashik
(D) Pune
72. Which of the following is CORRECT
(A) If Vacancies are not available in equivalent grades, a medically decategorized employee has to be offered absorption in a higher grade.
(B) The employee cannot refuse absorption in a higher grade.
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
73. During station inspection by S&WI, the following should be checked
(A) HOER rosters
(B) LEO register
(C) Grievance register
(D) All of the above
74. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the Chairman under the Central Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. unless he--
(A) is, or has been, a Judge of a Supreme Court; or
(B) has, for at least three years, held the office of vice-Chairman;
(C) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
75. under RTI Act, 2005 what is the time-limited for PIO to transfer application to another public authority
(A) 5 days
(B) 4 days
(C) 3 days
(D) 10 days
76. Choose the correct statement:
a. When a quarter is allotted to more than one railway servant,
(A) the assessed rent should be recovered proportionately on the basis of basic pay of railway servant.
(B) The amount to be recovered for a railway servant should not, however, exceed 12 percent of his emoluments or his share of the assessed rent, whichever is less.
(C) No the share will be recoverable from the railway servant entitled to rent-free quarters;
(D) None is correct
77. For extension of work charged posts, which of the following statement is correct
(A) Work charged posts can be extended only if a specific provision exists in the sanctioned estimate and as per yardstick.
(B) Account’s concurrence is not necessary
(C) Full powers with Branch Officer for post controlled by them
(D) All are correct
78. Which is not related to the medical department in Indian Railway?
(A) UMID
(B) CSTE
(C) RELHS
(D) ARPAN
79. To authorize a non-gazetted railway servant to proceed on duty outside at zonal railway, which of the following statement is correct.
(A) Powers are to be exercised by Junior Scale Officers in respect of staff under their control
(B) Account’s concurrence is necessary
(C) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
80. What is the correct full form of CPGRAMS
(A) Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring Software
(B) Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring system
(C) Centralized Pensioners Grievance Redress and Monitoring system
(D) Centralized Police Grievance Redress and Monitoring system
81. Best among the failed SC/ST candidates maybe included in the final select list on completion of his service training for the period of
(A) 3 Months
(B) 4 Months
(C) 6 Months
(D) 12 Months
82. In a selection where the SC/ST vacancies are available, the Selection Committee is constituted with the officers one of the officers, one of the officers should always be
(A) SC Community only
(B) ST Community only
(C) OBC Community only
(D) SC/ST Community
83. Which of the allowances has been abolished in 7th CPC?
(A) Special LC gate allowance
(B) Dual Charge Allowance
(C) Both
(D) None of the above
84. What is the rate of Transport Allowance in Higher TPTA City in Level-3?
(A) Rs.7200+ DA
(B) Rs.3600+ DA
(C) Rs.1800+ DA
(D) Rs.5600+ DA
85. Choose the correct option: What is the the rate payable to a railway servant (on transfer) for transportation of personal effects by road?
(A) Rs.80/km for Level 12 and above
(B) Rs.15/km for Level 12 and below
(C) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
86. Qualifying service at the time of retirement includes:
(A) Probation followed by confirmation
(B) Suspension regularised as leave & duty
(C) Both
(D) None
87. Which of the following is not a retirement benefit?
(A) Advance from the staff benefit fund
(B) Transfer grant,
(C) Settlement/ Kit Pass
(D) Post Retirement Complimentary pass
88. The maximum amount of commutation of pension is
(A) 30%
(B) 45%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
89. Pension is calculated on…. average pay
(A) 10 Months
(B) 12 Months
(C) 15 Months
(D) 09 Months
90. There is a reservation of …. for PWD candidates selected through open market
(A) 3.5%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3.0%
(D) 4.0%
91. Which is the prohibited deduction from Subsistence allowance
(A) LIC Premium
(B) House Rent
(C) Amount due on court attachment
(D) Refund of SBF loans
92. Which is not a division of South Eastern Railway Zone
(A) Ranchi Division
(B) Samastipur Division
(C) Adra Division
(D) Chakradharpur Division
93. Compassionate Ground Appointment case for dependants of the employee who has died in harness as a result of railway or other accidents while off duty, falls in which category?
(A) Priority 1 case
(B) Priority 2 case
(C) Priority 3 case
(D) Priority 4 case
94. Which of the following categories of transfers, in the case of non-gazetted staff, will not be exempted from the condition of a minimum of five (05) years service:
(A) Transfer sought on a mutual exchange basis;
(B) Transfer sought on sports ground;
(C) Railway servants who are care-givers to a disabled child
(D) None of the above
95. What does D in RDSO stands for
(A) Development
(B) Derailment
(C) Design
(D) Demurrage
96. Rule 13(a) under RS (conduct Rules) deals with
(A) Dowry
(B) Private Employment
(C) Sexual Harassment
(D) Insolvency
97. Which of the following is correct
(A) A railway servant shall refrain from consuming any intoxicating drink or drug in limits in private space
(B) A railway servant shall not appear in a public place in a state of intoxication
(C) Both are correct
(D) None of correct
98. How much joining time is admissible to a railway servant if the distance between the old and new headquarter is less than 1000km
(A) 1 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 12 days
(D) 15 days
99. Who is the competent authority to Waiver overpayment of amounts for the gazetted officer were such overpayments were detected by Accounts/ Audit after one year
(A) DRM
(B) Sr.DPO
(C) ADRM
(D) CPO
100. Special Casual Leave can be granted for
(A) Scouting activities
(B) Absence due to band, curfew
(C) Polling in Lok Sabha elections
(D) All of the above
101. Choose the correct statement regarding KMA
(A) it is granted to running staff of Indian Railway for being employed on running duties
(B) This allowance is granted to incentivize move train running and to compensate the staff for loss of daily allowance, which is not applicable to them
(C) Both are correct
(D) Both are incorrect
102. Who is the competent authority to condone break in service not more than one year of a non-gazetted staff
(A) Branch Officer
(B) DPO
(C) Sr.DPO
(E) DRM (Para-43 of Railway Services (Pension) Rules, 1993) Model SOP 2018.
103. What are the duties of welfare Inspector?
(A) To help Retiring staff in getting retirement, settlements, Pension.
(B) To inspect stations, shed.
(C) To get the grievances of the staff and to be solved after contacting required officer
(D) All of the above
104. The Trade Union Act, 1926 legalizes the Trade Union and gives it corporate personality under which section?
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 14
105. Under which Schedule of the Industrial Disputes act, 1947 are “Industries which may be declared to be Public Utility Services Under Sub-clause (VI) of Clause(N) of Section 2” laid down?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Fifth Schedule
106. Which section of the Industries Disputes Act, 1947 deals with “Payment of full wages to workman pending proceedings in higher courts”?
(A) 17A
(B) 17B
(C) 17C
(D) None of these
107. __________Prohibits discrimination in fixing salary to men and women engaged in the work of similar nature.
(A) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(B) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(C) Payment of Subsistence Allowance Act
(D) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
108. As per the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 an ‘Adolescent’ is defined as one who has
(A) Completed his thirteenth year of age but has not completed his eighteenth year
(B) Completed his fourteenth year of age but has not completed his eighteenth year
(C) Completed his fourteenth year of age but has not completed his twenty-first year
(D) Completed his thirteenth year of age but has not completed his twenty-first year
109. The amount of gratuity payable to an employee under the Payment of Gratuity Act, on date, shall not exceed
(A) Three lakh fifty thousand Rupees (w.e.f 24-5-2010)
(B) Five lakh fifty thousand Rupees
(C) Twenty Lakh Rupees
(D) Ten Lakh Rupees
110. The Powers of Inspectors is discussed in which section of the Indian factories Act?
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 11
(D) Section 12
111. Which of the following Acts was passed in 1952?
(A) Mines Act
(B) Equal Remuneration Act
(C) Indian Trade Union Act
(D) Payment of Gratuity Act
112. The relationship between the employer and employee in an organization is known as
(A) Social relationship
(B) Industrial relationship
(C) Family relationship
(D) Friendly relationship
113. The trade unions in India are governed by which of the following?
(A) Industrial disputes act 1926
(B) Industrial disputes act 1947
(C) Trade Union Act 1926
(D) Trade Union Act 1947
114. Appointment of Welfare Officer under Factories Act 1948 is compulsory where …. employees are concerned
(A) 50
(B) 1000
(C) 500
(D) 100
115. In which section of the Factories Act 1948, the appointment of a Safety Officer is mandate
(A) 40A
(B) 39B
(C) 40B
(D) 39A
116. Appointment of Safety Officer under Factories Act 1948 is compulsory where …. Or more employees are concerned
(A) 50
(B) 1000
(C) 500
(D) 100
117. Which section of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 talks about “Prohibition of strikes and lockouts”
(A) Section 22
(B) Section 25A
(C) Section 25T
(D) Section 27
118. Which of the following could be said to be the requirement of “employee” definition but not “worker” definition?
(A) Mutuality of obligations
(B) Control
(C) Personal service
(D) Contract
119. Any amount due from an employer under settlement or award can be recovered following the procedure laid in
(A) The standing orders
(B) Section 15 of the Payment of Wages Act
(C) minimum Wages Act
(D) Section 33C of the Industrial Disputes Act
120. As per Workmen’s Compensation Act 2009 which word is now substituted for “workmen”
(A) Workers
(B) Servants
(C) Employees
(D) Vassals
121. under the Payment of Wages Act 1936, payment of wages of an establishment employing not more than 1000 employs shall be paid within …… of the wage month
(A) 10th day
(B) 7th day
(C) 2nd day
(D) 15th day
122. Which of the following means a lumpsum the amount made by an employer as the retiral award for an employee’s past service when the employee’s employment is terminated?
(A) Pension
(B) Compensation
(C) Gratuity
(D) None of these
123. Under The Payment of Gratuity Act, a teacher working in a private-government recognized school
(A) is eligible for all gratuity benefits,
(B) shall be paid only half of the gratuity as any other employees similarly placed
(C) is not defined as an employee and so is not entitled to any gratuity
(D) None of these
124. When did the Right to Information Act came into force?
(A) 15 June 2005
(B) 12 October 2005
(C) 12 June 2005
(D) 15 October 2005
125. Who is the secretary of the PNM meeting at divisional level
(A) Sr. DPO
(B) Secretary of recognized union
(C) ADRM
(D) DRM
126. Purposes for which Advances can be sanctioned under Chapter-11 of IREM
(A) For purchase of personal computer
(B) For lawsuits
(C) Both
(D) None
127. Which of the following statement is correct
(A) The amount fixed for Children Education Assistance is Rs. 2250 per month
(B) The amount fixed for hostel Subsidy is Rs.6500 per month
(C) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
128. Which of the following statement regarding Railway Institutes is incorrect
(A) The Institutes may be organized as Senior and Junior institutes and should cover as wide a range of staff as possible
(B) Separate Institutes for the artisan class may be considered where there are considerable numbers
(C) The membership will be compulsory
(D) All are incorrect
129. Which of the following statement regarding Railway Holiday Homes is correct
(A) The use of Holiday homes set up by a particular division cannot be used by staff of other divisions
(B) Holyday Homes have been established as a measure of amenity to staff
(C) Both are Correct
(D) None is Correct
130. Supernumerary posts are:
(A) are permanent posts
(B) created under special circumstances for operation for a limited period
(C) at the discretion of the competent authority to create the posts in the administrative convenience
(D) All are correct
131. Which of the following is correct?
(A) No prior permission of the Government is required for donating blood in Blood Banks attached to railway hospitals or government hospitals or if called upon in emergencies to donate blood in any Blood Bank.
(B) Railway employee who donates blood to a railway hospital on a working day has to avail his own Casual Leave
(C) As far as possible, railway employees should be encouraged to donate blood voluntarily and not with any mercenary motive.
(D) Both A and C are Correct
132. As per para 640 of IREC, what are the duties of a person under quarantine
(A) Shall not either himself frequent or permits members of his household to frequent places of the public resort such as institutes, reading rooms places of worship and the like or
(B) if resident in railway premises, shall not leave without the express permission of the Medical officer, the station or any part thereof which the Medical Officer may consider proper, in the interests of the health of the public, to define, or
(C) Shall not permit any railway servant or nay member of the family of a railway servant or any other person not being a member of the Medical or Sanitary staff or other expressly authorized person, to enter his house or hold unnecessary communication with himself or a member of his household
(D) All
133. The contribution payable by the employee in New Pension Scheme is
(A) Monthly basis
(B) Quarterly basis
(C) Half yearly basis
(D) Yearly basis
134. Which of the following statement is correct
(A) The PRAN is a unique 14 digit number
(B) It identifies those individuals who have registered themselves under the income Tax Act.
(C) Both are correct
(D) Both are incorrect
135. What is the name of the online APAR system for Gazetted Officers in Railway?
(A) SWARN
(B) SAARTHAK
(C) SUVIDHA
(D) SPARROW
136. MACP Scheme was operative which date?
(A) 01.09.2008
(B) 01.09.2000
(C) 01.01.2008
(D) 01.08.2008
137. Which of the following is considered while giving financial up gradation to an employee under MACPS?
(A) Seniority
(B) Qualifying Service
(C) Roster Point
(D) All of the above
138. Which of the following is not a type of roster under HOER?
(A) Intensive
(B) Extensive
(C) Continuous
(D) Essentially intermittent
139. Which of the following in regard to Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act 2013 is correct?
(A) Formation of internal Complaints Committee at workplace
(B) Internal the committee shall have the same powers as are vested in the civil court under the Code and Civil Procedure, 1908, when summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person
(C) Where the allegation against the charged official is proved to be malicious, the internal Committee may recommend to the competent disciplinary authority to take action against the complaint
(D) All are correct
140. What are the different heads under which the annual grant is received in Staff Benefit Fund?
(A) Recreation other than sports
(B) Promotion of Cultural Activities
(C) Women empowerment Activities
(D) All of the above
141. Which of the following regarding Dress Allowance is correct?
(A) Rate of dress allowance for officers of RPF is Rs.2000/-pm
(B) The amount shall be credited to the salary of entitled employees once a year in the month of April
(C) Entitled staff will still be provided with uniforms
(D) Washing allowance and shoe Allowance stand superseded with it.
142. Where is the HQ of East Coast Railway situate?
(A) Khurda Road
(B) Waltair
(C) Sambalpur
(D) Bhubaneshwar
143. The Railway Servant (Discipline & Appeal) Rules came into force on?
(A)1948
(B)1978
(C)1968
(D)None of these
144. What is the percentage of NPA is added for calculating DCRG?
(A)20%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 55%
145. When was medical allowance to retired employees introduced?
(A)01.01.1997
(B) 01.10.1997
(C) 01.11.1997
(D) 01.12.1997
146. Family pension introduced in the year?
1. 01.01.1964
2. 01.02.1964
3. 01.03.1964
4. 01.09.1964
147. Total No. of Railway Recruitment Board?
1. 21
2. 20
3. 19
4. 18
148. Liberalized leave rule is applicable from?
1. 01.02.1949
2. 01.01.1949
3. 01.03.1949
4. 01.04.1949
149. Paternity leave is introduced w.e.f.
1. 01.10.1997
2. 01.10.1999
3. 01.10.1998
4. 01.10.2006
150. Where is the training of Indian Railway Personnel Service Officers held?
1. Vadodara
2. Jamalpur
3. Secunderabad
4. Nasik
151. Presentation of the first-ever Railway Budget in India held in?
1. 1925
2. 1905
3. 1888
4. 1853
152. The appeal shall be preferred to any higher authority other than the …..
1. DRM
2. GM
3. Disciplinary Authority
4. Appellate Authority
153. Board of enquiry appointed by the Disciplinary Authority?
1. Not less than 4 Members
2. Not less than 3 Members
3. Not less than 2 Members
4. None
154. An Acting Railway Servant can be allowed to act as defence counsel in DAR cases in-?
1. 03 No of case
2. 04 Nos of cases
3. 05 Nos of cases
4. 07 Nos of case
155. Which penalty is not recorded in the service sheet?
1. Stoppage of passes
2. Warning
3. Censure
4. None
156. What does UMID stand for
1. Universal Medical Inquiry Department
2. Universal Materials Inventory Directory
3. Unique Medical Identity Card
4. Unique Medical Inventory Directory
157. On duty, CRB is entitled for __ Metal Pass.
1. Bronze
2. Gold
3. Silver
4. None of these
158. Which Rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules-1966 is related to Dowry?
1. 13
2. 13A
3. 14
4. 15
159. In Railway context what does PREM stand for?
1. Primary Railway Establishment Manual
2. Progressive Railway Employees meeting
3. Personnel Record of Employee Management
4. Participation of Railway Employees in Management
160. Where is the Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical Engineering (IRIMEE) Situated
1. Jamalpur
2. Pune
3. Nasik
4. Vadodara
161. Headquarter of South western Railway?
1. Bangalore
2. Hubli
3. Chennai
4. Mysore
162. What is the penalty for loss of a Gold pass?
1. fine of Rs. 10,950/-
2. fine of Rs. 3800/-
3. fine of Rs.3799/-
4. fine of Rs.17499/-
163. As per HOER rules, The Hours of duty of Saloon attendant is ---a Hour’s week?
1. 54
2. 48
3. 72
4. 56
164. The standard hours of duty of intensive classification -----hours a week?
1. 42
2. 40
3. 48
4. 54
165. -----will study leave be counted in qualifying service?
1. Promotion
2. Seniority & Pension
b. (c)Increment
c. (d) All of above
166. What will be the rate of Additional family Pension to the pensioner who is 97 years of old?
1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 40%
4. 50%
167. Subscriptions under the Group Insurance scheme shall not be recovered during the last ------months of service?
1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six
168. WWO
1. Women Welfare Organisation
2. Women World Organisation
3. War World Organisation
4. Women Works Organisation
169. Full form or MOSR?
1. Member of State Railway
2. Minister of State for Railway
3. Minister of Society of Railway
4. Member of Secret Rules
170. Which standard form used for order of Suspension as per 5(1) of RS(D&A) Rules
1. SF-1
2. SF-2
3. SF-5
4. SF11
171. The privilege pass may be issued with a validity period up to the date preceding the date on which the son will be attaining the age of ----- years?
1. 21
2. 18
3. 19
4. 25
172. How much upper age relaxation to SC/ST category candidates is admissible in direct recruitment?
1. 04 Years
2. 05 Years
3. 06 Years
4. 03 Years
173. Which is the Correct Expansion of MACP?
1. Maximum Advancement in Career Path
2. Modified Assured Career Progression
3. Modified Application of Career Progression
4. Minimum Anomalies in Career Promotion
174. Color of First-class ‘A’ pass?
1. white
2. Green
3. Yellow
4. Pink
175. Bungalow Peon shall be granted Temporary status after completion of ……days of continuous?
1. 80 days
2. 160 days
3. 120 days
4. 180 days
176. When was the second train in India run?
1. 15.08.1854
2. 16.04.1853
3. 26.01.1850
4. None of the above
177. Rail Wheel factory is located at?
1. Yeshwantpur
2. Yelehanka
3. Kapurthala
4. None of the above
178. Surplus staff should be booked with in …..for training who need be re-trained before re-deployment
1. One Month
2. Two Months
3. Three Months
4. Four Months
179. What is the annual working period for apprentices?
1. 100 Days
2. 120 Days
3. 180 Days
4. 240 Days
180. What is the maximum amount that Railway doctors can be paid as ‘Basic pay + NPA’ per month?
1. Rs. 2,00,000/-
2. Rs. 2,35,000/-
3. Rs. 2,37,000/-
4. Rs. 2,50,000/-
181. What is the 100 % rate of TA of employee in Pay matrix Level-1 to Level-5
1. Rs.500/-
2. Rs. 800/-
3. Rs. 384/-
4. Rs. 1000/-
182. Under how many classes HOER has been classified?
1. 4 Classes
2. 3 Classes
3. 2 Classes
4. 5 Classes
183. When did The Factories Act, 1948 come into effect?
1. 01.04.1944
2. 01.04.1948
3. 01.04.1947
4. 01.04.1949
184. Next General Elections for Lok Sabha in India are falling due in_____year
1. 2023
2. 2024
3. 2025
4. None of these
185. How many States and Union Territories are there in India (as on date)?
1. 28 States and 8 Union Territories
2. 28 States and 6 Union Territories
3. 27 States and 8 Union Territories
4. 26 States and 7 Union Territories
186. Serum Institute of India (SII), a vaccine manufacturing company is located in ------City in India?
1. Hyderabad
2. Pune
3. Mumbai
4. New Delhi
187. Rafale Fighter Aircraft is imported form the following country-----
1. Russia
2. Germany
3. USA
4. France
188. In which year Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) came into existence?
1. 1960
2. 1962
3. 1966
b. (D)1968
189. Who is the president of JCM/National Council
1. CRB
2. Finance Secretary
3. Cabinet Secretary of Indian Government.
4. Principal Secretary
190. In Railways which authority at Divisional Level has the powers to decide against Appeal of Orders of Central Administrative Tribunal?
1. ADRM
2. DRM
3. SR. DPO
4. CLA
191. How many sections are covered under RTI Act?
1. 10 section
2. 20 section
3. 30 section
4. 40 section
192. As per Charter Railway Board Policy Disposal of MINOR DAR Cases within a period of
1. 150 Days
2. 30 Days
3. 31 Days
4. 180 days
193. When was the Sexual Harassments of women at work place Act enforced in India?
1. 23.04.2013
2. 01.04.2013
3. 01.01.2013
4. 01.01.2012
194. Reservation quota for recruitment of Ex-serviceman in Group-D is
a. (A)3% (B) 4% (C)10% (D)20%
195. Running allowances describe in which chapter of IREM.
1. IREM-I Chapter – XI.
2. IREM-I Chapter – X.
3. IREM-I Chapter –IX.
4. IREM-I Chapter – XII.
196. How many members are there in the Railway board presently?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 8
197. CCL to a female railway employee can be given having disabled children upto the age of ……year
a. (A)25
b. (B) 22
c. (C) 20
d. (D) Life time
198. The Minimum Wages Act came into force from
1. 1963
2. 1950
3. 1952
4. 1948
199. The Chairman of PNM held at Railway Board is……
1. CRB
2. MS
3. DG(HR)
4. Adviser IR
200. Hima Das is connected with which game.
a. Lawn Tennis
b. Table Tennis
c. Basket Ball
d. Athletics
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