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Wednesday, 6 July 2022

Conduct Rules and D&A Rules (200 MCQ with Answer)

Conduct Rules 1966 and D&A Rules 1968 (200 MCQ with Answer)

Railway Services (Conduct) Rules 1966

1.

The Railway Service Conduct rules enacted in the year

 

(a)

1943

(b)

1966

 

 

(c)

1968

(d)

2005

Ans. (b)

2.

Under Railway Service Conduct rules following is not come with in per-view of 'family'

 

(a)

Dependent Son

 

(b)

Dependent Step Daughter

 

(c)

Wife not residing not separated with Rly. servant.

 

(d)

Daughter not dependent on the railway servant.                                                      Ans. (d)

3.

Under which rule provisions in regards to prohibition of sexual harassment of working woman are laid down -

 

(a)

Rule 2(iii)

(b)

Rule No. 3A

 

 

(c)

Rule No. 3C

(d)

Rule No. 3B

Ans. (c)

4.

Under which rules provisions in regards to taking part in politics & Election.

 

(a)

Rule 8

(b)

Rule 5

 

 

(c)

Rule 9

(d)

Rule 3

Ans. (b)

5.

Under which rules provisions in regards to critison of Govt.

 

(a)

Rule 9

(b)

Rule 8

 

 

(c)

Rule 17

(d)

Rule 18

Ans. (a)

6.

Under which rules provisions in regards to demonstration which is prejudicious to the interest of severing and integrity of India.

 

(a)

Rule 7

(b)

Rule 9

 

 

(c)

Rule 8

(d)

Rule 5

Ans. (a)

7.

Under which rules provisions in regards to connection with press & media.

 

(a)

Rule 9

(b)

Rule 7

 

 

(c)

Rule 8

(d)

Rule 5

Ans. (c)

8.

Under which rules provisions in regards to accept & permit gift by any member of the family.

 

(a)

Rule 15

(b)

Rule 17

 

 

(c)

Rule 13

(d)

Rule 13A

Ans. (c)

9.

Under which rules provisions in regards to transaction of Movable, Immovable and Valuable Property.

 

(a)

Rule 18

(b)

Rule 18A

 

 

(c)

Rule 17

(d)

Rule 21

Ans. (a)

10.

Under which rules provisions in regards to acquisition and disposal of immovable property outside India.

 

(a)

Rule 18

(b)

Rule 18A

 

 

(c)

Rule 21

(d)

Rule 22

Ans. (b)

11.

Under which rules provisions in regards to in solvency and habitual in datedness.

 

(a)

Rule 17

(b)

Rule 21

 

 

(c)

Rule 22

(d)

Rule 18

Ans. (a)

12.

Under which rules provisions in regards to dowry.

 

(a)

Rule 13

(b)

Rule 13A

 

 

(c)

Rule 15A

(d)

Rule 18A

Ans. (b)

 

 

13.

Under which rules provisions in regards to subletting and vacation of Govt. accommodation.

 

(a)

Rule 13A

(b)

Rule 18A

 

 

(c)

Rule 15A

(d)

Rule 17

Ans. (c)

14.

Under which rules provisions in regards to restriction regarding marriage.

 

(a)

Rule 21

(b)

Rule 22

 

 

(c)

Rule 18

(d)

Rule 18A

Ans. (a)

15.

Under which rules provisions in regards to consumption of intoxicating drinks and drinks.

 

(a)

Rule 22

(b)

Rule 21

 

 

(c)

Rule 15

(d)

Rule 18A

Ans. (a)

16.

Group 'A' Rly. servant can accept a gift amount upto Rs. ……… without sanction of government.

 

(a)

25000

(b)

7500

 

 

(c)

1500

(d)

500

Ans. (c)

17.

Group 'B' Rly. servant can accept a gift amount upto Rs. ……… without sanction of government.

 

(a)

25000

(b)

1500

 

 

(c)

15000

(d)

7500

Ans. (b)

18.

Group 'C' Rly. servant can accept a gift amount upto Rs. ……… without sanction of government.

 

(a)

1500

(b)

7500

 

 

(c)

500

(d)

15000

Ans. (c)

19.

Group 'A' Rly. servant can accept gift on occasions such as wedding anniversaries, funeral etc. w/out  previous sanction.

 

(a)

1500

(b)

25000

 

 

(c)

7500

(d)

500

Ans. (b)

20.

Following staff are required to submit IPR at the time of promotion.

 

(a)

DJ

(b)

JE

 

 

(c)

Fitter S&T

(d)

ACC

Ans. (d)

21.

Following staff are required to submit IPR every year.

 

(a)

Clerk GP 1900 Level-2

(b)

ECRC GP 2800 Level-5

 

 

(c)

JE(Electrical) Level-6

(d)

SSE(PW) Level-7

Ans. (d)

22.

Following is not a movable property under service conduct rule.

 

(a)

Purchase of shares

(b)

T.V.

 

 

(c)

Refrigerators

(d)

Purchase of land

Ans. (d)

23.

Rly. servants holding the post of Group 'A' & 'B' have to submit annual property returns.

 

(a)

Every year

(b)

After every 05 years of service

 

 

(c)

Not required

(d)

After every 02 years of service

Ans. (a)

24.

Following is a immovable property under service conduct rule.

 

(a)

Shares

(b)

Refrigerators

 

 

(c)

T.V.

(d)

FLAT

Ans. (a)

25.

Whether it is compulsory to submit IPR every year by the Rly. servant working in the grade pay/level.

 

(a)

GP 4200/Level-6

(b)

GP 2800/Level-5

 

 

(c)

GP 4600/Level-7

(d)

GP 2000/Level-3

Ans. (c)

26.

Service conduct Rules not apply to

 

(a)

A member of All India Service

 

(b)

A holder of any post in respect of which the president has, by a general or special order

 

(c)

A Railway servant as defined in Section 3 of the Indian Railways ac 1890

 

(d)

All the above.                                                                                                           Ans. (d)

27.

Every government servant shall at all times-

 

(a)

Maintain absolute integrity

 

(b)

Maintain devotion to duty

 

(c)

Do nothing which is unbecoming of a government servant

 

(d)

All the above.                                                                                                           Ans. (d)

28.

In Rule 3-A of Service Conduct rules explained

 

(a)

Observance of Government's policies

 

(b)

Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women

 

(c)

Promptness and Courtesy

 

(d)

All the above.                                                                                                           Ans. (c)

29.

For the purpose of Rule 3-C of these rule "sexual harassment" includes such unwelcome sexually determined behavior whether directly or otherwise as -

 

(a)

Physical contact as advances

 

(b)

Demand or request for sexual favors

 

(c)

Sexually colored remarks

 

(d)

Showing any pomography; or any other  unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature                                                               

 

(e)

All the above.                                                                                                          Ans. (e)

30.

Mark the correct option -

 

(a)

Govt. servant who may be convicted in a criminal court to inform his official superiors of the fact of his conviction and the circumstances

 

(b)

Failure on the part of any Govt. servant so to inform his official superiors will render him liable to disciplinary action on this ground alone

 

(c)

Govt. servant who may arrested for any reason to intimate the fact of his arrest and the circumstances connected therewith to his official superior promptly even though he might have subsequently been released on bail.

 

(d)

All the above.                                                                                                          Ans. (d)

31.

Mark the incorrect option

 

(a)

To joining educational institution by Govt. servants normal office hours should be take prior permission before joining educational institutions or courses of studies for universities degree

 

(b)

Participation in Shramadan organized by govt department or the Bharath sevak samaj can be permitted

 

(c)

Participation in Shramadan or bharath sevak samaj such activity does not interfere with the performance of this official duties

 

(d)

Non of these                                                                                                             Ans. (d)

32.

Employment of near relatives of Government servants in companies or firms defined in ………. of Service Conduct rules.

 

(a)

Rule 3

(b)

Rule 4

 

 

(c)

Rule 5

(d)

Rule 6

Ans. (b)

 


 

33.

Mark the incorrect option

 

(a)

No Govt. servant shall use his position or influence directly or indirectly to secure employment for any member of his family in any company.

 

(b)

A Govt. servant shall, as soon as he becomes aware of the acceptance by a member of  his family o an employment in any company or film, intimate such acceptance to the prescribed authority.

 

(c)

Both A & B

 

(d)

None of these                                                                                                            Ans. (c)

34.

Provision regarding take part in politics and Elections defines in.

 

(a)

Rule 3

(b)

Rule 4

 

 

(c)

Rule 5

(d)

Rule 6

                                 Ans. (c)

35.

Mark the incorrect option

 

(a)

A Govt. servant qualified to vote at such election may exercise his right to vote.

 

(b)

A Govt. servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an election in legislature election only.

 

(c)

Govt. servant endeavor to prevent any member of his family form taking part in elections.

 

(d)

None of these                                                                                                            Ans. (b)

36.

Joining of Associations by Railway servants defined in ………… of Service Conducts rules

 

(a)

Rule 3

(b)

Rule 4

 

 

(c)

Rule 5

(d)

Rule 6

                              Ans. (d)

37.

Demonstrations defined in ……….. of Service Conducts rules

 

(a)

Rule 7

(b)

Rule 4

 

 

(c)

Rule 5

(d)

Rule 6

                           Ans. (a)

38.

Strikes includes

 

(a)

Mass abstention from work without permission

 

(b)

Refusal to work overtime where such overtime work is necessary in the public interest

 

(c)

Resort to practices or conduct which is likely to result in or results in the cessation or substantial retardation o work in any organization.  What are called go-slow, sit-down, pen-down, stay-in etc.

 

(d)

All the above                                                                                                              Ans.(d)

39.

Connection with press or other media defined in………… of Service Conducts rules

 

(a)

Rule 8

(b)

Rule 7

 

 

(c)

Rule 9

(d)

Rule 10

Ans. (a)

40.

Criticism of Govt. means and includes

 

(a)

Which has the effect of an adverse criticism of any current or recent policy or action of the Central Government or a State government.

 

(b)

Which is capable of embarrassing the relations between the Central Govt. and the Government of any Sate

 

(c)

Which is capable of embarrassing the relations between the central government and the Government o any foreign state

 

(d)

All the above                                                                                                              Ans.(d)

41.

Evidence before committee defined in …………. of Service Conducts rules

 

(a)

Rule 8

(b)

Rule 7

 

 

(c)

Rule 9

(d)

Rule 10

Ans. (d)

 

 

42.

Rule 10 of Service Conduct rules not apply to :

 

(a)

Evidence given at an enquiry before an authority appointed by the Govt. Parliament or a State Legislature.

 

(b)

Evidence given in any judicial enquiry

 

(c)

Evidence given at any departmental enquiry ordered by authorities subordinate to the government.

 

(d)

All the above                                                                                                              Ans.(d)

43.

Rule 11 of Service Conduct rules explained :

 

(a)

Evidence before committee.

 

(b)

Unauthorized communication of information

 

(c)

Election

 

(d)

Gift                                                                                                                             Ans.(b)

44.

Unauthorized communication of information means and include :-

 

(a)

To which he is not authorized to have access.

 

(b)

Which he is not authorized to keep in his personal custody

 

(c)

Both A & B.

 

(d)

None of these                                                                                                             Ans.(c)

45.

Gift defined in …………. of Service Conducts rules

 

(a)

Rule 11

(b)

Rule 12

 

 

(c)

Rule 10

(d)

Rule 13

Ans. (d)


R S (D&A) Rules 1968


Qn. 1. Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of deemed suspension?

(a) SF-1                   (b) SF-3
(c) SF-2                   (d) SF-4
Ans. (c)
Qn.2. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of suspension?
(a) He can not leave Hq. Without permission      (b) He need not sign attendance register
(c) Privilege passes cannot be availed               (d) No increment is drawn during suspension
Ans. (b)  Ref.Rly. Bd’s No. E(D&A) 83 RG-6-17 dt. 31.5.83.

Qn. 3. An employee under suspension can be called to appear in written examination required for selection for promotion?
(a) May be called to appear during suspension                  (b) May be called after suspension is over
(c) To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority.                  (d)None of these
Ans. (a)

Qn.4. A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to

(a) Leave his head qrs.                                            (b) Have passes for attending PNM/JCM
(c) Act as defence counsel                                     (d) None
Ans. (C)

Qn. 5. Review of suspension cases should be done

(a) After 3  months                   (b) before  completion of 3 months
(c) After 2 months                    (d) None
Ans. (b)                          RBE No. 94/2006

Qn. 6. When an employee under suspension is acquitted by a court of law?
(a) Full pay and allowance are granted                                        (b) Half pay and allowance for granted
(c) 75% pay and allowance are granted                                       (d) No payment
Ans. (a) Ref.  Rule 1343 I R E C Vol-II

Qn. 7. A Railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension if he detained in police custody for a period?

(a) exceeding 24 hours                                      (b) exceeding 48 hours
(c) immediate effect                                           (d) none
Ans. (b)  Ref. Rule 5 of RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.

Qn. 8. An employee under suspension, when he reports sick is eligible for grant of sick leave?
(a) Grant of sick leave                                           (b) Grant of extraordinary leave
(c) Grant of Half pay leave                                   (d) Not grant of sick leave
Ans.(d)

Qn. 9. Standard form No.____   is used for revocation of suspension Railway employee under D&A Rules, 1968.
(a) One                  (b) Five
(c) Four                  (d) Seven
Ans. (C)

Qn. 10. Whether Sr. Section Engineer is empowered to suspend a Jr. clerk in G.P RS. 1900  working under his control?
(a) Sr. Section Engineer is Competent Authority                          (b) Depends upon offence
(c) Office Supdt. is competent authority                                        (d) None of these
Ans. (a)  Ref. (As per SOP) schedule II. RBE No- 10/2011

Qn.11. ‘Gr C’ and ‘Gr.D’ employees under suspension may be given
(a) 3 sets of pass per calendar year                 (b) 2 sets of pass
(c) one set of pass                                               (d) None of these
Ans. (C)


Qn. 12. Can a railway servant placed under suspension act as a defence helper?
(a) A Railway servant act as a defence helper                        (b) Decided by Disciplinary Authority
(c) Decided by GM                                                                        (d) None of these
Ans. (a) Ref. E(D&A) 74 RG 6-31 dt. 11.11.1974

Qn.13. Who is the competent authority to place under suspension a Gr ‘C’ staff working in pay level 6 ?
(a) Assistant officer        (b) JA Grade officer
(c)  Sr.Scale officer          (d) None
Ans. (b) RBE No. 10/2011.

Qn. 14. Reduction to a lower stage in a time scale of pay by one stage for a period not exceeding 3 years without cumulative  effect and not adversely affecting his pension is a
(a) Major penalty                  (b) Minor penalty
(c) None                                   (d) Both of these
Ans. (b) Ref. RBE No. 204/1990 

 

Qn. 15. Rule 11 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with the procedure for
(a) Suspension                   (b) Major penalty proceedings
(c) Appeal cases                (d) Minor penalty proceeding
Ans. (d)

Qn. 16.   Which No. of standard form is used for issuing Minor penalty charge sheet?

(a) SF-11                                  (b) SF-6
(c) SF-5                                     (d) None of these
Ans. (a)

Qn. 17. A suspended Rly Employee issued a major penalty C/sheet but finally imposed a minor penalty.

               The treatment of suspension period.

(a) Non duty           (b) Duty
(c) Dies non           (d) None of these.
Ans. (b)   RBE No. 57/86

 Qn.18.  Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS (D&A) Rules?
(a) President of India                           (b) Ministry of Railways

 (c) Member (Staff)                              (d) Secretary Rly.Bd.          

Ans. (a)

 

Qn. 19. Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and Appeals Rule in Railways?

(a) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968        (b) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966
(c) The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968              (d) None of these
Ans. (C)


Qn.20.   Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet on disciplinary proceedings?

(a) SF-11                         (b) SF-6
(c) SF-5                           (d) None of these
Ans. (C)

Qn.21. Recognised Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defence counsel in DAR cases in
(a) 2 Nos. of cases                   (b) 3 Nos. of cases
(c) 5 Nos. of cases                   (d) Any number of cases
Ans. (b)   Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-148 dt. 9.1.92.

Qn.22. Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly. Servant and RS(D&A) Rules, subsequently he is expired his case should be
(a) Continue and finalized         (b) Sent to Rly.Board
(c) Sent to GM                              (d) Closed
Ans. (d)   RBE No.115/2000


Qn.23. What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 came into force ?
(a) On the first day of January, 1968                             (b) On the 22nd day of August, 1968
(c) On the first day of October, 1968                             (d) None of these
Ans. (c)

Qn.24. Disciplinary Authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should invariably pass?
(a) Orders for penalty                     (b) Speaking order
(c) Brief  order                                  (d) None
Ans. (b) RBE No. 31/92


Qn.25. Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties?
(a) Rule-9                         (b) Rule-11
(c) Rule-6                          (d) None of these
Ans. (c)

Qn.26. Where appointing authority are not available who should be treated as appointing authority?
(a) Controlling Officer                   (b) DRM
(c) GM                                              (d) CPO
Ans. (C) Ref. Rly. Board’s No.E(D&A)63 RG6-23  dt. 21.02.64.


Qn. 27.  Board of enquiry appointed by the Disciplinary authority?

(a) Not more than 5 members                (b) Not less than 2 members
(c) Not less than 3 members                   (d) Not more than 4 members
Ans. (b) R.B.E. 37/2001


Qn.28. How many Annexures are attached with major penalty charge memorandum?
(a) 2     (b) 3
(c) 5     (d) 4
Ans. (d)

Qn.29. Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance?
(a) House Rent                 (b) Income Tax
(c) Court attachment      (d) Station debits
Ans. (C)

Qn.30. A person appointed directly to a post grade or time scale of pay can be reduce by way of punishment to a post in lower scale/grade service or to a post which he never held before?
(a) Yes                                                                                   (b) No
(c) Can be reduce but his pay to be protected             (d) None
Ans. (b)     RBE No.68/89


Qn.31.  A Rly. Servant punished with holding of increment for a specified period, punishment will effective from date of increment and he becomes due for promotion he should be promoted.
(a) Immediate effect                    (b) After expiry of the penalty
(c) With the approval of GM      (d) None of these
Ans. (a)     RBE 13/1993


Qn.32. A serving  Rly. employee cannot  be allowed to act as Defence counsel more than ….. cses at a time.
(a) 2 cases                  (b) 3 cases
(c) cases                      (d) 5 cases
Ans. (b)    R B E No. 184/1992


Qn.33. Stiff major penalty namely.
(a) Compulsory retirement.                           (b) Stoppage of increment.
(c) Reduction to the lower stage.                 (d) None.
Ans. (a) 

Qn.  34. A retd. Railway employee can act as a defense assistant in …….  cases at a time.
(a) 5                     (b) 7
(c) 3                     (d) 6

Ans. (b)   Ref. (RBE 83/2003)

Qn. 35. Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made?
(a) House Rent               (b) P.F. subscription
(c) Income Tax               (d) None
Ans. (b) Rule 1342  I.R.E.C. Vol. II

 


Qn. 36. A Rly. Servant punished with holding of increment simultaneously is promoted to the next grade. The penalty will given effect to the
(a) Promotion of the grade for same period        (b) But not result in greater monetary loss
(c) Retrospective effect
Ans. (a)  R.B.E. No.2000/2001

Qn.  37. What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge-sheet requires modification/addition
(a) Continue the proceedings                                              (b) Without canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued
(c) Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons                (d) None of these
Ans.(c) Rly. Bd’s No. E(D&A) 2001-RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn.38. When casual labours can be governed under the Railway disciplinary rules?
(a) After 5 months from engagement date               (b) After 6 months from engagement date
(c) After attaining temporary status                           (d) After regular absorption 
Ans. (C) Rly. Board’s No. E(NG)60-CL-13 dt. 13.5.65.

Qn.39. Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under
(a) Rule 20 of pension rules, 1993                       (b) Rule 64 of pension rules, 1993
(c) Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993                        (d) None
Ans. (C)   Railway Servant (Pension) Rules 1993

Qn. 40.  50% of subsistence allowance granted under?
(a) Rule 1342 R-II                            (b) Rule 1343 R-II
(c) Rule 1345 R-II                            (d) None
Ans. (a)    Indian Railway Establishment Code Vol. II

Qn.  41. What amount shall be taken into account for calculating subsistence allowance in case of running staff?
(a) 40% of basic pay                                   (b) 30% of basic pay
(c) 50% of basic pay                                    (d) 60% of basic pay
Ans. (b)
Qn. 42. (a) Which is relevant rule in R.S. (D&A) Rules, 1968 for common proceedings?
(a) Rule 9                                      (b) Rules 11
(c) Rule 13                                    (d) Rule 20
Ans. (c)

Qn.  43. If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in the same case, this case should dealt with by the
(a) Disciplinary Authority                                             (b) Revising Authority
(c) The next higher authority                                      (d) None
Ans. (C) Ref: Rly. Board’s No. E(D&A)90 RG6-123 dt.  09.11.1990.

Qn.  44.  Compulsory deduction from subsistence allowance?
(a) PF subscription                        (b) LIC premier
(c) House rent                                (d) Court attachment
Ans. (c)

Qn.45. D&A Rules 1968 will not apply to
(a) Permanent employee                                        (b) Apprentice
(c) Casual lab our with temporary status            (d) None
Ans. (b)

Qn.46. Before imposition of penalty inquiry report is to be supplied to…..
(a) Presenting officer               (b) Controlling officer
(c) Charged officer                    (d) None
Ans. (C) Ref.  Rule 10  of R S (D&A) Rules 1968.
Qn.  47. On transfer from one division to another division, a staff does not report for duty at the new place of posting who will be the competent authority for taking disciplinary action?
(a) GM               (b) D&A Authority at new place
(c) D&A authority at old place     (d) None
Ans. (b)  Ref. E(D&A) 69 RG 6-8 dt. 29.9.1969.

Qn. 48. Inquiry is not required under D&A Rule….
(a) Rule 5                             (b) Rule 14(ii)
(c) Rule 13                           (d) None
Ans. (b)  Rule 14 of   R S (D&A) Rules 1968


Qn.  49. The notice of imposition of penalty should be signed by
(a) Enquiry officer                   (b) Controlling officer
(c) Disciplinary authority       (d) None
Ans. (C)      Rly.Bd’s  No. E(D&A)67 RG 6-35 dt. 20.12.67

Qn.50. What would be appropriate disciplinary authority when staff working under the administrative control of DOM and misconduct pertains to violations of Commercial rule or safety rules?
(a) DCM/Sr.DCM                  (b) DSO/Sr.DSO
(c) DOM/Sr.DOM                 (d) DPO/Sr.DPO
Ans. (C)       E(D&A) 2001 RG-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn.51. Normal DAR cases are to be completed within the model time scheduled fixed by the Rly.Board.
(a) 202 days              (b) 300 days
(c) 150 days               (d)180 days

Ans. (c)

 

Qn.  52. Which is not a penalty under D&A Rules?
(a) Censure                        (b) Warning
(c) Stoppage of pass        (d) The recovery from pay of any pecuniary loss
Ans. (b)

Qn.  53. Under which Rule of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 the appellate authority can act as revising authority?
(a) Rule-22             (b) Rule - 25 A
(c) Rule-25             (d) Rule-21
Ans. (c)

Qn.  54. Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissed from service can be imposed only by
(a) controlling officer                          (b) disciplinary authority
(c) appointing authority                     (d) none
Ans. (c)   RBE No. 10/2011  Schedule of Power

Qn. 55. While forwarding appeal under Rule 21(3) of the R.S.(D&A) Rules to the appellate authority   Disciplinary authority should    confirm its comments to
(a) the points raised in the appeal only             (b) discuss past cases
(c) comment on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged official has had no opportunity to  explain his position                          (d) comments on his personality

Ans. (a)  Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-40 dt. 13.1.2000.

 

Qn.56. What is the permissible time limit for preferring a revision petition to the revising Authority?
(a) 60 days                        (b) 45 days
(c) 90 days                        (d) none
Ans. (b) RBE No. 235/1986

Qn. 57. Under Which Rule delinquent employee can request to Disciplinary authority  when appeal or revision petition is not preferred within the time limit.

  (a) Rule 25                        (b) Rule 27
(c) None                            (d) Rule 22

Ans. (b)

 

Qn.58. Under which circumstances ‘ex-parte’ inquiry can be held?
(a)Charge official does not appear before I.O. more than two occasion.
(b) Presenting Officer not appear before IO        (c) Disciplinary Authority not appear before IO
(d )None of these.
Ans. (a)


Qn.60. During the pendency of a penalty of stoppage of pass/PTO, whether promotion of a Railway staff

               will be affected.
(a) promotion will be affected                  (b) promotion will not be affected
(c) promotion will effect after expiry of punishment        (d) none of these
Ans. (b)

 

Qn. 61. When it is not practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules,

                 whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered?

 (a) Rule 6                   (b) Rule 14(ii)
(c) Rule 13                  (d) None
Ans. (b)

 

Qn. 62. Can any of the penalties specified in Rule 6 of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules be imposed with

                retrospective effect?
(a) With retrospective effect                (b) Both are prospective and immediate effect as admissible
(c) Always be prospective effect         (d) None of these
Ans. (b)

 

 

Qn.63. Under which Rule before disposing the revision petition by the GM the case should be refer to

              R R T for advice.

(a) Rule 14(i)                                 (b) Rule 31
(c) Rule 24                                     (d) Rule 21
Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.(D&A) Rule, 1968.


Qn.64.  Is it necessary the Inquiry Officer should be sufficiently senior to the charged official?
(a) IO should be senior                         (b) IO may be junior
(c) None of these
Ans. (a)  Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG-6-24 dt. 20.2.01.

Qn. 65. Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms of Rule 25 (i)

               (iv)?

(a) The officer not below the rank of DRM              (b) The officer not below the rank of JA officer
(c) The officer not below the rank of PHOD             (d)The officer not below the rank of Sr. Scale
Ans. (a)  E(D&A)2003/RG 6-37  dt. 13.2.04.

Qn.  66. Which of the following is not termed as penalty under DAR 1968?
(a) Censure                              (b) Withdrawing of promotion
(c) Suspension                        (d) None
Ans. (C)

 

Qn.  67.  Which of the following person is not allowed to be engaged as defence counsel?
(a) A serving Rly. Employee                       (b) A retired Rly. Employee
(c) A legal practitioner                                (d) A trade union official
Ans. (c)

Qn.68. Who is the competent to review under Rule 25“A” of Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968?
(a) General Manager                        (b) PHOD
(c) Railway Board                              (d) The President of India
Ans. (d)

 

Qn.  69. Which of the following is the order against which no appeal lies?
(a) An order of suspension                                               (b) An order for enhancement of penalty
(c) Any order passed by an inquiry authority in the course of an enquiry        (d) None of these.
Ans. (C)

Qn. 70. Whether The Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 are applicable RPF  constable ?
(a) are applicable.                                            (b) are not applicable.
(c) are applicable in certain cases.               (d) None of these.
Ans. (b)   Rule 3 of  RS (D&A) Rules, 1968

 

Qn. 71  Show cause notice is necessary when the appellate authority
(a) Upheld the punishment                         (b) Reduce the punishment
(c) Propose to enhance the punishment         (d) None
Ans. (C) Rule 25 RS (D&A) Rules, 1968

Qn. 72. Competent revising authority can (suo-moto)   enhance the punishment within a period of
(a) 12 months                (b) 6 months
(c) 4 months                  (d) 3 months

Ans. (b)  Rule 25 RS (D&A) Rules, 1968

Qn. 73  Competent revising authority can (suo-moto)   reduce the punishment within a period of
(a) 12 months         (b) 6 months
(c) 4 months            (d) 3 months

Ans. (a) Rule 25 RS (D&A) Rules, 1968

Qn. 74.  In any case, ADRM is the disciplinary authority who will be acting as Appellate authority?
(a) DRM              (b) PHOD
(c) GM                (d) Rly. Board
Ans. (b) Ref. Schedule II of DOP.

Qn. 75 . A retired Employee may be granted pension before finalization of the D&A case.
(a) Full pension                      (b) Half pension
(c) Provisional pension          (d) None
Ans. (C)

Qn. 76. Daily order sheet maintain by
(a) Disciplinary authority          (b) Inquiry officer
(c) Charged officer                    (d) None
Ans. (b)

Qn. 77. Appointment of presenting officer is mandatory
(a) In all cases                   (b) CBI vigilance investigation
(c) Canteen                        (d) None
Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 78 RG 6-3 DT. 20/22/1979.

Qn.78.  When inquiry is not necessary?
(a) Charges unconditionally admitted by CO                  (b) Charges not admitted by CO
(c) Charges admitted with other reasons by DA.            (d) None of these.
Ans. (a) clause III sub rule 9 of Rule 9 of RS (D&A) Rule 1968

Qn.  79. A Railway servants cannot be promoted during the punishment period either minor or major?
              Which one of the following is an exception to the above provisions?

(a) Stoppage of Passes.                (b) Reduction to the lower stage in the time scale of pay
(c) Withholding of increment.     (d) Reduction to the lower time scale of pay/grade/post

Ans. (a)

80.  

The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules came into force on ___.   (01.10.1968)

81.  

Standard Form No__is used for placing a Rly employee under suspension. (SF-1)

82.  

Standard Form No________ is used for revocation of suspension.         (SF-4)

83.  

Standard Form No ________ is used for minor penalty charge sheet.    (No. 11)

84.  

Standard Form No ______ is used for major penalty charge sheet.        (No. 5)

85.  

Standard form No.______ is used for nomination of Inquiry Officer.       (No. 7)

86.  

Standard form No.______ is used to appoint a presenting officer.          (No. 8)

87.  

Subsistence allowance is equal to leave salary, which the employee would have drawn had he been on __________           (Half average pay)

88.  

No appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within ______ days.(45 days)

89.  

The period of 45 days for preferring an appeal is reckoned from _______.(the date of receiving notice for imposition of penalty)

90.  

The appeal shall not contain any ______.(any disrespectful or improper language)

91.  

No order imposing/enhancing a penalty shall be made by any revising authority unless the Railway Servant concerned has been given ________ against the penalty proposed. (a notice)

92.  

No proceeding for revision shall be commenced until after the expiry of the period of limitation for__________.                          (Appeal)

93.  

No proceeding for revision shall be commenced until after the ________of the appeal where any such appeal preferred.         (disposal)

94.  

Rule 25.A of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with _____________.       (Revision)

95.  

Every order or notice under RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 shall be served in person on the Railway servant concerned or communicated to him by _____________. (Registered Post)

96.  

An authority not lower than ___________________ shall impose the penalties of dismissal/Removal/Compulsory retirement.               (Appointing Authority)

97.  

Disciplinary Authority decides to conduct inquiry either ________ or by ___________.(himself  or by Enquiry officer)

98.  

_________ Authority fixes the date for inquiry and advises the charged employee.(Enquiry officer)

99.  

The inquiring authority may refuse the request of the delinquent employee for documents, if they are __________ to the case.   (not related)

100.       

The inquiring authority, where it is not itself the ___________, shall forward to the disciplinary authority the records of inquiry.(Disciplinary Authority)

101.       

Charges framed against a delinquent employee should not be _______ .They should be ______ and definite to convey exact nature of the alleged misconduct.       (Vogue)  (Specific)

102.       

The disciplinary authority cannot impose major penalty without conducting enquiry proceedings subject to the exceptions given under Rule ________ of the RS (D&A) Rules, 1968.                                        (Rule 14)

103.       

If no presenting officer is appointed, __________ authority will perform the functions of the presenting officer in an inquiry.  (Inquiry officer)

104.       

The trade union official nominated as defence counsel should be a member of the recognized trade union for at least __________ (period) at the time of nomination.   (1 year)

105.       

If no presenting officer is nominated, _________ will examine and re-examine the prosecution witnesses. (Inquiry officer)

106.       

If _________ authority is a legal practitioner, the defence assistant can also be a legal practitioner. (Presenting Officer)

107.       

The ten days time allowed for submission of the written statement may be extended by the __________ authority; if he satisfies that there is enough justification to do so.                      (Disciplinary authority)

108.       

In case the alleged charge is assault, ___________ filed in the police station can be one of the relevant documents to be attached to the charge sheet. (FIR)

109.       

In case the alleged charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the listed documents. (Attendance Register)

110.       

If the charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the witnesses. (Incharge)

111.       

A railway servant under suspension can be given _______ sets of privilege passes in a calendar year at the discretion of the authority not lower than DRM.     (One)

112.       

A railway servant under suspension can be given one set of privilege pass in a calendar year at the discretion of the authority not lower than __________. (A gazetted railway servant -GM, only half the number of privilege passes for himself, his family and dependent relatives for which he is eligible in a calendar year) (A non-gazetted railway servant -DRM, HOD or Dy.HOD)

113.       

Employees under suspension may be given not more than ________ sets of PTOs per year. (Two sets)

114.       

The discretion to issue PTOs to employees under suspension may also be exercised by ______. (GM in respect of Group A and Group B officers and Head of Department, DRM or Dy. Heads of Department)

115.       

Appeal shall be entertained preferred within _____ days.       (45 days)

116.       

Rule No. ________ of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with communication of orders to Railway servants. (Rule 12)

117.       

Schedule III of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with ___(D&AR SOP for Group A & B)

118.       

Special provision for personal hearing  to Group C and D is contained in Rule_____ of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968. (Rule-24)

119.       

The authority competent to reduce of increase the subsistence allowance after a period of three months of suspension  is  _______________.      (Disciplinary authority)

120.       

After a period of three months of suspension, the subsistence allowance may be increased or reduced by _______.  (50%)

121.       

A charge sheet for major penalty necessarily contains _____ annexure. (Four)

122.       

A trade union official can act as ___________ in a DAR Case. (Defence Assistant)

123.       

Written statement of defence by the delinquent railway servant shall be submitted within_____ days from the date of receipt of Charge sheet.     (10 days)

124.       

The time-limit for completion of departmental inquiry is _______ from the date of appointment of the IO. (six months) 2016/V-1/CVC/1/1

125.       

A retired Railway servant can act as a defense helper (True)

126.       

The defense helper should be from the same Railway as that of the delinquent employee. (True)

127.       

An official of a recognized trade union may assist in more than three pending disciplinary cases. (True)

128.       

Termination of an employee on reduction of establishment is a penalty under D&A Rules, 1968.   (False)

129.       

Withholding of increments for failure to pass any departmental examination is not a penalty under D& A Rules, 1968.   (True)

130.       

Reversion of a Railway servant officiating in higher service on the ground that he is considered to be unsuitable for such higher grade is a penalty under D&A Rules, 1968.   (False)

131.       

Appeal lies against the order of suspension.    (True)

132.       

Any order interlocutory in nature passed by the inquiry can be appealed against.    (False)

133.       

While disposing of an appeal, the appellate authority can order re-appointment of the delinquent employee.   (False)

134.       

The appeal against an order of the disciplinary authority can be preferred by the appellant in his own name.   (True)

135.       

The appeal shall be preferred to any higher authority than the disciplinary authority.        (False)

136.       

While putting up the case to revision authority, the authority competent thereto can suggest the specific penalty to be imposed.  (False)

137.       

The disciplinary proceedings should be closed immediately on the death of the charged employee.

138.       

A railway servant on leave preparatory to retirement cannot be nominated as a defence counsel.            (False)

139.       

If the documents cited in the charge sheet are not enclosed at the time of serving the same, it shall lead to procedural lapse.        (False)

140.       

What is the time limit allowed for the delinquent employee for completion of inspection of the documents?

141.       

Show cause notice is necessary before imposing minor penalty after dropping the major penalty proceedings. (False)

142.       

Recognized trade union official can assist a gazetted railway servant to present his case before the inquiring authority.

143.       

The trade union official who assists the delinquent employee in an inquiry should take nominal fees only. (False)

144.       

A legal practitioner can act as a defence assistant. (False)

145.       

A railway servant under suspension can be granted leave. (False)

146.       

In case of removal/dismissal the cost of privilege passes given to a railway servant under suspension should be recovered.   (False)

147.       

PF amount can be recovered from Subsistence allowance. (False)

148.       

Amount due to court attachment cannot be recovered for subsistence allowance. (True)

149.       

Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 apply to casual labour. (False)

150.       

Inquiry is not required to be held in case of DAR proceedings for minor penalty. (True)

151.       

The disciplinary authority can never act as an inquiry officer. (False)

152.       

Trade Union member can act as Defence counsel in a DAR case against Gazetted Officers. (True)

153.       

Rule 13 of D&A Rules deals with common proceedings.     (True)

154.       

No appeal shall lie against any order passed by an Inquiry Officer in the course of an inquiry under Rule 9 of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968.  (True)

155.       

Rule 25 of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with special provisions for Group C & D staff.   (False)


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